Human Health and Disease MCQ for NEET Biology

Q 1. Malignant tertiary malaria is caused by Plasmodium:

1. Vivax
2. ovale
3. malariae
4. falciparum

Answer- d, Falciparum

Explanation: Malignant tertian malaria, also known as severe or complicated malaria, is primarily caused by the Plasmodium falciparum parasite. Plasmodium falciparum is the most dangerous and responsible for the majority of severe malaria cases in humans, even though all four Plasmodium species can cause malaria in humans.

Q 2. The pathogens responsible for causing elephantiasis are transmitted to a healthy person through

1. Droplet
2. Female mosquito vector
3. Contaminated food and water
4. Sexual contact

Answer- b, Female mosquito vector

Explanation: An infected female mosquito bite transmits elephantiasis, which is caused by a parasitic worm called Wuchereria bancrofti.It mainly affects the lymphatic system and can cause serious swelling in the arms, legs, and genitals if left untreated.

Q 3. Interferons are secreted by:

1. Liver
2. Spleen
3. Virus-infected cells
4. Lymphocytes

Answer- c, Virus-infected cells

Explanation: Interferons are proteins that are primarily secreted by virus-infected cells in response to viral infection. A virus-infected cell releases interferons to signal neighboring cells and the immune system that the virus is present. Interferons play a crucial role in coordinating the body’s immune response to combat viral infections.

While interferons are mainly produced by virus-infected cells, they can also be produced by other cell types, such as lymphocytes, including natural killer (NK) cells, B cells, and T cells, in response to viral infection or immune stimulation. Nevertheless, interferons are not secreted by all cells in the body. The liver and spleen, as organs, do not produce interferons themselves, but their antiviral effects may affect them

Q 4. A recipient’s body rejects grafts due to the following type of immunity:

1. Innate immunity
2. Humoral immunity
3. Cell-mediated immunity
4. Either b or c

Answer- c, cell-mediated immunity

Explanation: The type of immunity responsible for graft rejection by a recipient body is primarily cell-mediated immunity. The immune system of a recipient recognizes transplanted cells as foreign and initiates an immune response to eliminate them. This immune response involves the activation of T cells, specifically cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs), which directly attack and destroy the transplanted cells.

Cell-mediated immunity, which is a component of adaptive immunity, plays a significant role in graft rejection. CTLs recognize and target the foreign antigens present in the transplanted cells, leading to their destruction. This process involves the activation of T cells, antigen presentation by major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules and the release of cytotoxic molecules by the activated T cells.

Q 5. Which blood cells reproduce HIV and produce progeny viruses?

1. Eosinophils
2. THcells
3. B-lymphocytes
4. Basophils

Answer- b, THcells

Explanation: HIV replicates and produces progeny viruses in CD4+ T Cells, also known as T- helper cells. These cells play a crucial role in the body’s immune system and are essential for fighting off infections. Without them, the body’s immune system would become weakened and unable to fight off infections.

Q 6. Which of the following is used in the production of the recombinant Hepatitis B vaccine?

1. Yeast
2. Microsporum
3. Ecoli
4. Streptococcus

Answer- a, Yeast

Explanation: The production of the recombinant Hepatitis B vaccine involves the use of yeast. Specifically, the yeast species Saccharomyces cerevisiae is commonly used as a host organism for the production of recombinant Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg), which is a key component of the Hepatitis B vaccine.

Q 7. Select the incorrect statement regarding acquired immunity.

1. Acquired immunity is a nonspecific type of defense present at birth.
2. A primary response occurs when our body first encounters a pathogen.
3. Subsequent encounters with the same pathogen provoke anamnestic reactions.
4. Anamnestic reactions are based on memories of the first encounter.

Answer- a, Acquired immunity is a nonspecific type of defense present at birth.

Explanation: The incorrect statement is that acquired immunity is a non-specific type of defense present at the time of birth. Acquired immunity is not present at birth, rather it is developed over time as the body’s immune system encounters pathogens and creates memory cells that can recognize them on subsequent encounters.

Q 8. What are the protein coat and genetic material present in HIV?

1. ss RNA
2. ds RNA
3. ss DNA
4. ds DNA

Answer- a, ss RNA

Explanation: The protein coat and genetic material present in HIV is ssRNA.RNA, or single-stranded RNA, is one of the components that make up HIV, which is a retrovirus, meaning its genetic material consists of ribonucleic acid (RNA) rather than deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA).

Q 9. Why is Cyclosporine used?

1. For allergy
2. As immunosuppressant
3. Prophylactic for virus
4. None of the above

Answer- b, Immunosuppressant

Explanation: Cyclosporine is used as an immunosuppressant to help reduce the body’s rejection of transplanted organs and tissues. Rheumatoid arthritis, Crohn’s disease, and lupus can also be treated with it.

Q 10. Foreign cells are lysed by?

1. IgM
2. IgA
3. IgE
4. IgM & IgG

Answer- d, IgM and IgG

Explanation: IgM and IgG will lyse foreign cells. IgM is the first type of immunoglobulin antibody produced in response to an antigen, while IgG is the more functional and long-lived antibody, which helps provide lasting immunity against pathogens. IgA and IgE are not capable of lysing foreign cells.

Q 11. Colostrum secreted from the mammary gland contains which type of antibodies?

1. lgMm
2. IgD
3. IgE
4. IgA

Answer- d, IgA

Explanation: Colostrum secreted from the mammary gland contains IgA antibodies. IgA is the most abundant antibody type in the body, and it helps protect the body against infections and disease. Colostrum is essential for newborns as it provides them with antibodies to help protect their bodies from illnesses.

Q 12. What is the function of antigen?

1. lowers body temperature
2. kills harmful bacteria
3. triggers the immune system
4. As an antidote to poison, it is used

Answer- c, triggers the immune system

Explanation: The function of antigen is to trigger the immune system. Antigens are molecules that can be recognized by the immune system and cause an immune response, which can be either an antibody-mediated response or a cell-mediated response.

Q 13. In a primary immune response to an antigen, which of the following is a pentameric immunoglobulin?

1. IgG
2. IgM
3. IgA
4. Ige

Answer- b, IgM

Explanation: IgM is the pentameric immunoglobulin in a primary immune response to an antigen. It is made up of five identical monomeric units, and its primary function is to bind antigens and activate the complement system, which is important in the initiation of the primary immune response.

Q 14. If you suspect a major deficiency of antibodies in a person, to which of the following would you look for confirmatory evidence?

1. Serum globulins
2. Fibrinogen in plasma
3. Serum albumin
4. Haemocytes

Answer- a, Serum globulins

Explanation: Hemocytes are not associated with the diagnosis of antibody deficiency. If you suspect a person has a major deficiency of antibodies, check their serum globulins, fibrinogen levels, and serum albumin levels.

Q 15. What is the largest percentage of immunoglobulins in human milk?

1. IgM
2. IgA
3. Igd
4. IgE

Answer- a, IgM

Explanation: IgA constitutes the largest percentage in human milk. IgA is an antibody found in secretions such as saliva, tears, and breast milk. It helps protect the body against infection and diseases.